Sumit Majumdar
Last Activity: 10 Years ago
Solution:
We can prove this by contradiction.
Suppose x = y then x = z. So you can assume they are all different, say x > y > z.
If, they are all of the same sign, say z > 0.
Then y > z and 1/z > 1/y > 1/x imply y + 1/z > z + 1/x.
If the signs are split, say x > y > 0 > z. In this case x + 1/y > y + 1/z.
Contradiction again. That's it.
Thanks & Regards
Sumit Majumdar,
askIITians Faculty
Ph.D,IIT Delhi